Playing poker at the Legion last night I was disappointed in my table draw.....table 4. It is the first to break, so that is no good, plus the players were a bad mix of LAGs, Calling Stations, and clueless with a decent player or two thrown in the mix. My first hand was a portent of the future. Sitting in the small blind with KQ, I completed the blinds with several limpers. The flop was king high, 9/10/k to be precise. I went ahead a bet out with the probable best hand but a very "wet" board. I was called in at least 3 spots. The turn was a brick, but put a flush draw on board. Another bet saw 2 callers. At this point I had invested about 20% of my starting chip stack. The river was a queen, which gave me two pair, but was also the completion of both flush and straight draws. I checked, the big blind bet $300, and had one caller. I folded. He raked the pot with KJ, for the straight, the other player commented that he had 2 pair. I was drawing dead!!! Nice start to the evening.
Winning a big pot later with AK, and later with K10 suited with a flopped flush, I was cruising around 1 1/2 times starting chips just before the break when this hand happened. The very LAG player raised to $250 in middle position, a clueless player (I will elaborate on this later), called and I called on the button with AQ. The flop was great (I thought) with queen high, but two diamonds on a coordinated board...something like Q/J/8. The LAG bet $500, and the clueless called. I was feeling like the lead bettor had nothing and the caller had a flush draw so decided to re-raise all-in. The original LAG quickly folded, but the caller quickly called (I had him covered by $600). He turns over......AA!!!!! WTF!!!! Definitely the weirdest play of aces I have seen for a while. I fail to find another queen and he massively chips up while I am left with 3 big blinds after the ensuing break. I really do not understand his failure to raise at any point in the hand. Why would he allow other players to enter when he can isolate the LAG preflop? Why would he allow a flush draw to call on the continuation bet? All of my chips are going into the pot anyway after the flop ( I would have definitely folded to a pre-flop re-raise from him) even if he had raised, but his flat call was just very poor play. He even commented that he thought I had a set. If that was the case, could he not find a fold? PS, he was the player who had flopped 2 pair on my first hand loss....why in the world would he not raise me to drive out the draws? Again a passive play that turned out bad for him earlier.
My last hand was in the big blind after the break. With 1/3 of my chips in the pot, the LAG in the small blind...who had chipped up nicely, went all-in with a calling station limping 2 UTG. I had A/10 suited, so I called...putting him on a small pair. The other player also called showing AK, while the all-in had 6/6. His pair held up and both of us were eliminated.
Winning a big pot later with AK, and later with K10 suited with a flopped flush, I was cruising around 1 1/2 times starting chips just before the break when this hand happened. The very LAG player raised to $250 in middle position, a clueless player (I will elaborate on this later), called and I called on the button with AQ. The flop was great (I thought) with queen high, but two diamonds on a coordinated board...something like Q/J/8. The LAG bet $500, and the clueless called. I was feeling like the lead bettor had nothing and the caller had a flush draw so decided to re-raise all-in. The original LAG quickly folded, but the caller quickly called (I had him covered by $600). He turns over......AA!!!!! WTF!!!! Definitely the weirdest play of aces I have seen for a while. I fail to find another queen and he massively chips up while I am left with 3 big blinds after the ensuing break. I really do not understand his failure to raise at any point in the hand. Why would he allow other players to enter when he can isolate the LAG preflop? Why would he allow a flush draw to call on the continuation bet? All of my chips are going into the pot anyway after the flop ( I would have definitely folded to a pre-flop re-raise from him) even if he had raised, but his flat call was just very poor play. He even commented that he thought I had a set. If that was the case, could he not find a fold? PS, he was the player who had flopped 2 pair on my first hand loss....why in the world would he not raise me to drive out the draws? Again a passive play that turned out bad for him earlier.
My last hand was in the big blind after the break. With 1/3 of my chips in the pot, the LAG in the small blind...who had chipped up nicely, went all-in with a calling station limping 2 UTG. I had A/10 suited, so I called...putting him on a small pair. The other player also called showing AK, while the all-in had 6/6. His pair held up and both of us were eliminated.
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Quick comment on my flopped flush. I raised preflop in early position (think it was a blind) with K/10 suited. One of the callers was a very aggressive loose player. I bet the flop as a continuation bet, then check/called his turn bet. When the 5th spade hit on the river I should have bet either very small or very large for action. I did neither, just checked, hoping that he would use the opportunity to bluff with a worse flush (I had the nuts as the ace came on the turn). He checked behind and announced 9 of spades. The player next to me said I should have bet, and I agree, but not sure how much would induce a call or better, a raise.
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